Official name:
Right to Information Act, 2005.
Act Number:
Act No. 22 of 2005.
To provide citizens access to information under the control of public authorities in order to promote:
The Central Information Commission describes RTI as a mechanism for transparency and accountability and traces the constitution of the CIC to 12 October 2005. (cic.gov.in)
RTI Act was enacted in 2004.
❌ Wrong.
It was enacted in:
The right to know has strong constitutional roots in:
Article 19(1)(a).
The Constitution does not contain a separate article literally titled:
"Right to Information."
The right to know has been judicially derived from freedom of speech and expression.
Right to Information is expressly named as a Fundamental Right in Article 19.
❌ Wrong wording.
Correct:
Judicially recognised as part of Article 19(1)(a).
RTI is:
A statutory right with constitutional foundations.
Constitution → Right to Know.
RTI Act → Detailed statutory mechanism.
The RTI Act is merely an executive scheme.
❌ Wrong.
It is Parliamentary legislation.
Under Section 3:
All citizens shall have the right to information.
Citizen → Yes.
Non-citizen foreign national → No statutory right under Section 3.
Anyone in the world can invoke Section 3.
❌ Wrong.
The statutory right belongs to:
Citizens.
Section 2(h) covers bodies such as:
Only government departments are public authorities.
❌ Wrong.
Substantial government financing can bring an otherwise non-government body within the public-authority definition.
Only 100% government-funded organisations can be public authorities.
❌ Wrong.
The Act does not require complete government financing.
A private institution is not automatically outside RTI.
Ask:
Does it satisfy Section 2(h)?
"Private" ≠ "Automatically outside RTI."
Information includes material in any form, including:
RTI covers only physical documents.
❌ Wrong.
RTI generally provides access to:
Information already held by or under the control of the public authority.
It does not normally require a public authority to:
This principle was strongly clarified in CBSE v. Aditya Bandopadhyay.
RTI → Existing information.
RTI ≠ Research service.
A citizen may ask:
"Why was my application rejected?"
Ask for:
PIO must always create a fresh explanation answering every "why".
❌ Wrong.
Section 4(2):
Public authorities should continuously endeavour to provide as much information as possible:
suo motu.
The objective is:
Minimum resort to the RTI Act.
Suo motu disclosure means disclosure after receiving an application.
❌ Wrong.
Suo motu → On the authority's own initiative.
The Act requires publication of 17 categories of information.
There are 20 categories under Section 4(1)(b).
❌ Wrong.
There are:
Concerned with:
Section 4(1)(a) is the main penalty provision.
❌ Wrong.
It concerns:
Record management and computerisation.
Concerned with:
Relevant facts while formulating important policies or announcing decisions affecting the public.
It deals with employee salaries.
❌ Wrong.
Concerned with:
Reasons for administrative or quasi-judicial decisions to affected persons.
Reasons must be supplied automatically to every citizen for every government action.
❌ Wrong.
The provision refers to:
Affected persons.
Section 4(1)(b) originally required the specified information to be published:
Within 120 days from enactment.
Every annual Section 4 update must be made within 120 days.
❌ Wrong.
The 120-day period concerned the initial publication requirement.
Information under Section 4(1)(b) is to be updated:
Every year.
Proactive disclosure is a one-time obligation.
❌ Wrong.
Information should be:
Widely disseminated and easily accessible to the public.
Uploading a document somewhere online automatically satisfies meaningful accessibility.
❌ Wrong.
Dissemination should take account of:
RTI information must always be provided only in English.
❌ Wrong.
An RTI request may be made:
RTI applications must always be physically submitted.
❌ Wrong.
Section 6 does not require an applicant to:
Give reasons for requesting the information.
The applicant is generally required to provide only particulars necessary for contacting them.
Applicant must prove "larger public interest" for every RTI application.
❌ Wrong.
An applicant:
shall not be required to give any reason for requesting the information.
"An RTI applicant must explain why the information is needed."
❌ Wrong.
If the information is held by another public authority, or the subject matter is more closely connected with another authority:
Application may be transferred.
Transfer should be made:
As soon as practicable and in no case later than 5 days.
Transfer limit is 10 days.
❌ Wrong.
5 days.
Normally:
30 days
from receipt of the request.
Every RTI must be answered within 15 days.
❌ Wrong.
Normal period:
30 days.
Where the information sought concerns:
Life or liberty of a person,
it shall be provided within:
48 hours.
Normal → 30 days.
Life/liberty → 48 hours.
Where a request is submitted to an Assistant Public Information Officer:
5 days
are added to the response period under Section 7(1).
APIO submission does not affect the deadline.
❌ Wrong.
Section 11 is relevant where qualifying information:
and has been treated as confidential.
Section 11 is:
A consultation procedure.
It is not itself an automatic exemption.
Notice to third party.
Third party gets opportunity to represent.
PIO decision from receipt of the RTI request in a Section 11 case.
5 → 10 → 40.
Third-party objection:
≠
Automatic refusal.
PIO → Considers representation → Makes statutory decision.
Section 8 contains the principal information exemptions.
A → Security/Sovereignty.
B → Court.
C → Legislature.
D → Commercial.
E → Fiduciary.
F → Foreign Government.
G → Life/Source.
H → Investigation.
I → Cabinet.
J → Personal Information.
Protects information where disclosure would prejudicially affect specified interests including:
Every defence-related record is automatically exempt.
❌ Wrong.
Statutory conditions matter.
Protects information where:
Every court-related document is exempt.
❌ Wrong.
Protects:
Breach of privilege of Parliament or State Legislature.
RTI automatically overrides legislative privilege.
❌ Wrong.
Protects:
where statutory conditions are satisfied.
Larger public interest can be relevant.
All business information is exempt.
❌ Wrong.
Protects:
Information available to a person in fiduciary relationship.
Every confidential relationship is fiduciary.
❌ Wrong.
A genuine fiduciary relationship is required.
Protects:
Information received in confidence from a foreign Government.
It applies only to intelligence agencies.
❌ Wrong.
Protects information where disclosure would:
Only police informants are covered.
❌ Wrong.
Protects information where disclosure would:
Impede investigation, apprehension or prosecution.
"Investigation is ongoing" automatically means exemption.
❌ Wrong.
The impediment test matters.
Concerned with:
Cabinet papers.
Post-decision disclosure of specified Cabinet information is governed by the provision, subject to continuing exemptions.
Cabinet papers are permanently exempt.
❌ Wrong.
Current provision:
Information which relates to personal information.
This wording came into force on:
13 November 2025
through the DPDP Act framework. (indiacode.nic.in)
Old pre-2025 wording is the current Section 8(1)(j).
❌ Wrong.
Before the 2025 change, the provision contained a more detailed framework involving:
Older cases: → Historical jurisprudence.
Current text: → Current Section 8(1)(j).
Section 8(2) provides a public-interest balancing mechanism.
It operates notwithstanding:
Public interest in disclosure
Harm to protected interest.
Public interest automatically overrides every exemption.
❌ Wrong.
The statutory balancing framework must be applied.
Subject to specified exceptions, information relating to an event/matter occurring:
20 years before the request
is generally to be provided.
The 20-year rule preserves protection under:
20 years
but:
A + C + I survive.
Section 9 permits rejection where providing access would involve:
Infringement of copyright subsisting in a person other than the State.
Section 9 is about commercial confidence.
❌ Wrong.
8(1)(d) → Commercial confidence.
9 → Copyright.
Where part of a record is exempt:
Non-exempt part may be disclosed if reasonably severable.
Personal details → Redact.
Public expenditure → Disclose.
One exempt paragraph makes the entire document exempt.
❌ Wrong.
Section 11:
Consultation procedure.
Automatic exemption.
Third party can veto disclosure.
❌ Wrong.
The Information Commission can receive complaints in specified circumstances.
Examples include:
The CIC itself identifies Section 18 as its complaint jurisdiction. (cic.gov.in)
Section 18 is the first appeal provision.
❌ Wrong.
Section 18 → Complaint.
PIO → First Appellate Authority.
FAA → Information Commission.
Section 18 is second appeal.
❌ Wrong.
Section 19 → Appeals.
A second appeal is generally to be filed within:
90 days
from the date on which the decision was received or ought reasonably to have been received.
Delay may be condoned for sufficient cause.
Second appeal period is 30 days.
❌ Wrong.
Information Commission may impose:
₹250 per day
subject to:
Maximum ₹25,000.
Penalty is ₹500 per day.
❌ Wrong.
Commission may recommend:
Disciplinary action
against the PIO under applicable service rules where statutory conditions are satisfied.
20(1) → Monetary penalty.
20(2) → Disciplinary recommendation.
Information Commissions prepare annual reports on implementation.
The reports cover matters such as:
Section 25 is about appointment of Commissioners.
❌ Wrong.
Section 25 → Monitoring and reporting.
The Central Information Commission's jurisdiction extends over:
Central Public Authorities.
The CIC was constituted with effect from:
12 October 2005.
CIC handles every RTI appeal from every State department.
❌ Wrong.
State Information Commissions deal with:
State public authorities.
SIC is subordinate to CIC in every RTI case.
❌ Wrong.
They operate within their respective jurisdictions under the Act.
→ Central public authorities.
→ State public authorities.
Central Authority → CIC.
State Authority → SIC.
The Information Commission:
CIC can arrest a PIO.
❌ Wrong.
Appointed by:
President.
On recommendation of a committee consisting of:
Appointed by:
Governor.
On recommendation of:
CIC is appointed directly by the Prime Minister.
❌ Wrong.
The RTI Amendment Act, 2019 changed the framework governing tenure and service conditions of Information Commissioners.
Term:
Such term as may be prescribed by the Central Government.
The Central Rules prescribe:
Three years.
The RTI Act currently directly states a five-year term.
❌ Wrong.
The:
65-year age limit
continues to be relevant.
2019 amendment removed the 65-year limit.
❌ Wrong.
The former Section 1(2) wording excluded:
State of Jammu and Kashmir.
The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019 removed that exclusion.
31 October 2019.
Central RTI Act continues to exclude J&K.
❌ Wrong.
Important current-law distinction:
Section 8(1)(j) → Detailed privacy/public-interest framework.
Section 8(1)(j) → Information which relates to personal information.
All old RTI privacy judgments automatically reproduce the current statutory test.
❌ Wrong.
The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023:
Amended Section 8(1)(j).
The relevant provision was brought into force on:
13 November 2025.
The DPDP Act itself has staggered commencement rather than coming into force entirely on one date. (indiacode.nic.in)
Entire DPDP Act came into force on 13 November 2025.
❌ Wrong.
RTI concerns:
Existing information.
Public authority need not create:
Existing information doctrine.
RBI's regulatory relationship with banks is not automatically fiduciary.
Fiduciary.
❌ Wrong.
Personal/service information was protected under the former Section 8(1)(j) framework.
Use the old statutory wording as current law.
❌ Wrong.
Privacy:
Fundamental Right.
But:
Not absolute.
Right to Know vs Right to Privacy.
Supreme Court is completely outside RTI.
❌ Wrong.
Voters have a:
Right to know relevant information about electoral candidates.
Informed voter → Meaningful democracy.
Associated with:
Right to know about government affairs.
Raj Narain → Right to Know.
Associated with:
Open Government.
S.P. Gupta → Open Government.
Changed:
Removed:
J&K exclusion.
Changed:
Section 8(1)(j).
2019 → Institution + J&K.
2023/2025 → Privacy.
→ Life/liberty.
→ Transfer / third-party notice.
→ Third-party representation.
→ Normal RTI response.
→ Third-party decision.
→ First appeal where no decision is received, for certain CIC complaint guidance contexts; do not confuse with the normal appeal-filing limit.
→ Second appeal.
→ PIO penalty.
→ Maximum penalty.
→ Section 8(3) historical disclosure rule, subject to exceptions.
→ Maximum age of CIC/IC under the Act.
→ Term prescribed by 2019 Rules.
| Statement | Answer |
|---|---|
| RTI applies only to physical records | ❌ |
| Only government departments are public authorities | ❌ |
| Applicant must state reason | ❌ |
| Normal response time is 30 days | ✅ |
| Life/liberty information: 48 hours | ✅ |
| Third-party notice: 5 days | ✅ |
| Third-party representation: 10 days | ✅ |
| Third-party decision: 40 days | ✅ |
| Second appeal: 90 days | ✅ |
| Section 8 contains exemptions | ✅ |
| Section 9 concerns copyright | ✅ |
| Section 10 concerns severability | ✅ |
| Section 11 is third-party procedure | ✅ |
| Section 18 is complaint | ✅ |
| Section 19 is appeal | ✅ |
| Section 20 is penalty | ✅ |
| Section 25 is monitoring/reporting | ✅ |
| Penalty: ₹250/day | ✅ |
| Maximum penalty: ₹25,000 | ✅ |
| RTI can force creation of new information | ❌ |
| Third party has automatic veto | ❌ |
| Entire DPDP Act began 13 Nov 2025 | ❌ |
| Current 8(1)(j) is old wording | ❌ |
Article 19(1)(a) → Right to Know.
Section 2(f) → Information.
Section 2(h) → Public Authority.
Section 2(n) → Third Party.
Section 3 → Citizens' Right.
Section 4 → Proactive Disclosure.
Section 6 → Application.
Section 7 → Time limits.
Section 8 → Exemptions.
Section 9 → Copyright.
Section 10 → Severability.
Section 11 → Third Party.
Section 18 → Complaint.
Section 19 → Appeal.
Section 20 → Penalty.
Section 25 → Monitoring.
Section 8(1)(j) → Personal information.
13 November 2025 → Current 8(1)(j) wording effective.
48 hours 5 days 10 days 30 days 40 days 90 days ₹250/day ₹25,000 20 years 65 years 3 years.
